南开大学
- Penicillin G cannot be given orally because it will form insoluble complexes in the stomach
- Glucocorticoids are essential at basal levels for maintenance of many homeostatic systems. They are stress hormones, being secreted at higher than basal rates in response to stress and protecting the organism from stress.
- The physiological effects of a drug only depend on its mechanism of action
- Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroxine(T4) and is the standard replacement therapy for patients with hypothyroidism. It takes approximately 4-6 weeks to achieve a steady state after initiation of the drug.
- Sotalol is not just a potassium channel blocker but is also a beta blocker. And it’s primary indications are suppression of ventricular tachycardia and maintenance of sinus rhythm in patients with paroxysmal a-fib and a-flutter.
- Scopolamine is mainly used to treat which of the following diseases ( )
- The main organs of α1 receptor blockers are ( )
- Pilocarpine eye drops can cause ( )
- Which of the following drugs may produce orthostatic hypotension ( )
- Which of the following options is an indication for Metoprolol
- Regarding local anaesthetic agents （ ）
- SC is a 75-year-old white male who has HF . He is seen in clinic today, reporting shortness of breath, increased pitting edema, and a 5-pound weight gain over the last 2 days. His current medication regimen includes losartan and metoprolol succinate. SC has no chest pain and is deemed stable for outpatient treatment. Which of the following is the best recommendation?
- Which of the following options is not a common side effect of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors.
- Regarding adverse effects of propofol ( )
- A 58-year-old female reports that she recently stopped taking her blood pressure medications because of swelling in her feet that began shortly after she started treatment. Which is most likely to cause peripheral edema?
- Codeine ( )
- Select the agent, which is preferred in the treatment of the drug-induced form of parkinsonism:
- Which of the following local anaesthetic agents is an ester ( )
- Regarding the antiepileptic drugs ( )
- Which of the following drugs are not DPP-4 inhibitors ( )
- Which of the following statements about amiodarone is wrong ( )
- Which of the following antibiotics is considered safe to use in neonates?
- Nitrous oxide ( )
- Which of the following options belongs to selective β1 blockers ( )
- Nicotine cannot affect which of the following neurotransmitters ( )
- What is the most common adverse effect associated with fixed-dose hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate?
- The drug for partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures is:
- Which neurons are involved in parkinsonism?
- Indicate the anesthetic, which is an inhibitor of NMDA glutamate receptors ( )
- How is spironolactone beneficial in HF?
- AJ is a 42-year-old man who was started on niacin sustained-release tablets 2 weeks ago for elevated triglycerides and low HDL levels. He is complaining of an uncomfortable flushing and itchy feeling that he thinks is related to the niacin. Which of the following options can help AJ manage this adverse effect of niacin therapy?
- Which of the following is the primary method of β-lactam resistance with Streptococcus pneumoniae?
- Inhaled anesthetics and intravenous agents having general anesthetic properties ( )
- The following option is a contraindication to propafenone （ ）
- A 58-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C, cirrhosis, and ascites presents with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which of the following antibiotics requires close monitoring and dosing adjustment in this patient given his liver disease?
- A 60-year-old white female has not reached her blood pressure goal after 1 month of treatment with a low dose of lisinopril. All of the following would be appropriate next steps in the treatment of her hypertension except:
- Children younger than 8 years of age should not receive tetracyclines because these agents:
- A 65-year-old male experiences uncontrolled angina attacks that limit his ability to do household chores. He is adherent to a maximized dose of β-blocker with a low heart rate and low blood pressure. He was unable to tolerate an increase in isosorbide mononitrate due to headache. Which is the most appropriate addition to his antianginal therapy?
- Which of the following options is wrong about oral antihypertensive drugs ( )
- Regarding GABA: all the following are true EXCEPT ( )
- A patient is being discharged from the hospital on a 3-week course of clindamycin. Which of the following potential adverse effects should be discussed with her?
- What is the method of administration of lidocaine for arrhythmia?
- Which is an appropriate choice for hypertension treatment during pregnancy
- A 30-year-old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate option for outpatient therapy?
- Which of the following antibiotics exhibits concentration-dependent killing?
- Which of the following statements about Labetalol is wrong ( )
- The choice of benzodiazepines for anxiety is based on:
- The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:
- A 24-year-old pregnant female presents to the urgent care clinic with fever, frequency, and urgency. She is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Based on potential harm to the fetus, which of the following medications should be avoided in treating her UTI?
- A 68-year-old male with a history of angina had a MI last month, and an echocardiogram reveals heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. He was continued on his previous home medications (diltiazem, enalapril, and nitroglycerin), and atenolol was added at discharge. He has only had a few sporadic episodes of stable angina that are relieved with nitroglycerin or rest. What are eventual goals for optimizing this medication regimen?
A:对 B:错
答案:错
A:对 B:错
答案:对
A:错 B:对
答案:错
A:对 B:错
答案:对
A:错 B:对
答案:B:对
A:COPD B:Prevention of post-operative nausea and vomiting C:Bronchial Asthma D:Prevention of motion sickness
答案:Prevention of post-operative nausea and vomiting###Prevention of motion sickness
A: Peripheral blood vessels B:Bronchus C:Heart D:Prostate
答案:Prostate###Peripheral blood vessels
A:Mydriasis B:Brow ache C:Night blindness D:Blurred vision
答案:Brow ache###Blurred vision###Night blindness
A:Terazosin B:Prazosin C:Labetalol D:Carvedilol
答案:Terazosin###Labetalol###Prazosin###Carvedilol
A:Arrhythmia B:Hypertension C:Acute coronary syndrome D:Angina
A:Local anaesthetic agents block conduction in small myelinated axons prior to blockade of other axons B:At normal pH the larger fraction of local anaesthetic in the body fluids will be in the unchanged form C:The duration of action of procaine will be increased in the presence of liver disease D:Lignocaine is also an antiarrhythmic of the Vaughan Williams classification group 1A E:Bupivacaine may cause an apparent cyanosis in some patients
A:Increase the dose of metoprolol succinate. B:Discontinue losartan. C:Start furosemide. D:Start hydrochlorothiazide.
A:Increased risk of genital infections B:Increased risk of urinary trac C: Decreased urination D:Thirst
A:Severe acidosis can occur with its use in paediatric respiratory infections B:It is positively inotropic C:Post op vomiting is common D:Hypertension is a complication E:Tremor is a common side effect
A:Clonidine. B:Felodipine C:Atenolol. D:Prazosin. E:Hydralazine.
A:Depresses the cough reflex B:Frequently causes diarrhoea C:Occurs in foxglove plants D:Is used to treat nausea caused by morphine E:Is more potent than fentanyl
A:Bromocriptine B:Levodop C:Benztropine D:Dopamine
A:Prilocaine B: Lignocaine C:Bupivacaine D:Procaine E:Ropivacaine
A:Valproate has a large Vd (>500l/70kg) B:Phenytoin is able to stimulate its own metabolism by enzyme induction C:The most common dose related adverse effects of Carbamazepine are ataxia and diplopia D:Lorazepam has documented efficacy against absence seizures E:Vigabatrin works by sodium channel blockade
A:Alogliptin B:Linagliptin C:Saxagliptin D:Glipizide
A:Amiodarone is completely absorbed after oral administration, it has a fast onset of action B:Amiodarone is used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with paroxysmal a-fib, a-flutter. C:Amiodarone is classified as a class III antiarrhythmic drugs, potassium channel blockers D:Pulmonary fibrosis is the most dangerous side effect of amiodarone.
A:Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim. B:Tetracycline. C:Penicillin G. D:Chloramphenicol.
A:Sensitises the heart to the action of catecholamines B:Has poor analgesic properties C:Can be used with O2 as a carrier gas for halothane D:Is an effective agent for inducing anaesthesia E:Forms a vapour which is explosive
A:Metoprolol B:Labetalol C:Atenolol D:Acebutolol
A:Norepinephrine B:5-HT C:Dopamine D:Epinephrine
A:Heartburn. B:Drug-induced lupus. C:Headache D:Diarrhea.
A:All of the above B:Phenytoin C:Carbamazepine D:Valproate
A:Cholinergic neurons B:GABAergic neurons C:All of the above D:Dopaminergic neurons
A:Halothane B:Thiopental C:Sevoflurane D:Ketamine
A:Promotes potassium secretion. B:Prevents cardiac hypertrophy. C:Agonizes aldosterone. D:Decreases blood glucose.
A:Change the sustained-release niacin to immediate-release niacin. B:Increase the dose of niacin SR to 1000 mg. C:Administer aspirin 30 minutes after taking niacin. D:Administer aspirin 30 minutes prior to taking niacin. E: Continue the current dose of niacin.
A:Decreased drug levels due to changes in permeability. B:Enzymatic inactivation. C:Modification of target site D:Decreased drug levels due to an efflux pump.
A:Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on GABAA receptors B:Directly activate GABAA receptors C:Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission D:Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated potassium channels
A: Coronary artery disease B:Hypertension C:Stomach ulcer D:Renal insufficiency
A:Vancomycin. B:Tobramycin. C:Erythromycin. D: Penicillin G.
A: Increase dose of lisinopril. B:Add on an ARB medication. C:Add a diuretic medication. D:Add on a calcium channel blocker medication.
A:Cause rupture of tendons. B:Deposit in tissues undergoing calcification. C:Do not cross into the cerebrospinal fluid. D: Can cause aplastic anemia.
A:Verapamil. B:Aspirin. C:Ranolazine. D:Amlodipine.
A:Glinides can stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells, and they accomplish that by binding to ATP-sensitive potassium channels at a same sites B:Acarbose lower blood sugar by inhibiting α-glucosidase and delays the absorption of glucose. C:Alogliptin lowers blood sugar by increasing insulin secretion, decreasing gastric emptying and reduce glucagon release. D:Sulfonylureas lowers blood sugar by increasing sensitivity of β cells to glucose and reduced hepatic glucose production.
A:Metabolism is inhibited by sodium valproate B:Is found in high concentrations in the basal ganglia C:Receptor blockers have anticonvulsant activity D: Receptors are sensitive to the activity of benzodiazepines E:Concentrations in the basal ganglia are abnormally low in Huntington’s chorea
A:Nephrotoxicity. B:Hyperbilirubinemia C: Clostridium difficile diarrhea. D:Pseudotumor cerebri.
A:p.o. B:s.c. C:i.v. D: i.p.
A:Valsartan. B:Hydralazine. C:Aliskiren. D:Fosinopril.
A:Tigecycline. B:Clindamycin. C:Quinupristin/dalfopristin. D:Doxycycline.
A:Linezolid. B: Daptomycin. C:Vancomycin. D:Clindamycin.
A:It decreased contractility by blocking β1 receptors B:It decreases heart rate by blocking β1 receptors C:It dilates of blood vessels by blocking α1 and β1 receptors D:It weakly stimulates both β1 and β2 receptors which leads to diminished effect on cardiac rate and cardiac output.
A:Availability of flumazenil for treatment of overdose B:A relatively high therapeutic index C:All of the above D:A low risk of physiologic dependence
A:A selective loss of dopaminergic neurons B:The loss of the GABAergic cells C:The loss of some cholinergic neurons D:The loss of glutamatergic neurons
A:Cephalexin. B:Tobramycin. C: Nitrofurantoin D:Amoxicillin.
A:Stop atenolol and increase diltiazem. B:Stop diltiazem and change atenolol to bisoprolol. C: Increase atenolol. D:Add isosorbide mononitrate.
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