第四章单元测试
- A 26-year-old G2P1 woman with a history of 11 weeks amenorrhea complains of 2 days’ vaginal spotting, without abdominal pain. She had a regular menstrual cycle before. Pelvic examination reveals a slightly soft, enlarged uterus consistent with 7 weeks pregnant size. The cervix is closed and no tissue is visible. Ultrasound examination shows an embryo as 7 gestational weeks without cardiac activity. What is the best diagnosis? （ ）
- Which of the following is NOT a cause of preterm birth? （ ）
- A 29-year-old G1P0 woman with a history of 10 weeks of amenorrhea complains of heavy vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On examination: T 38.3℃, P 118bpm, BP 95/55mmHg, abdominal tenderness(+). Pelvic examination reveals an open cervix with visible tissue. Urine hCG(+). What are the next appropriate steps to take? （ ）
- If there is FGR with either oligohydramnios and normal Doppler studies or with normal Doppler and normal AFI, then vaginal delivery may be attempted after induction of labor.（ ）
- To prevent postpartum bleeding, oxytocin was given during the anterior shoulder delivery of the second fetus. （ ）
A:Complete abortion B:Inevitable abortion C:Incomplete abortion D:Missed abortion E:Threatened abortion
答案:Missed abortion
A:Uterine abnormalities B:Oligohydramnios C:Group B Streptococcus infection D:Chorioamnionitis E:Premature rupture of membranes
A:Rapid restoration of perfusion B:Initiation of IV antibiotics C:Urgent surgical evacuation of the uterus D:Hormone therapy with progesterone E:Oxytocin drops
A:对 B:错
A:错 B:对
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