1. 答案:对
  2. Denitrification requires sufficient carbon sources, and when there is insufficient carbon source in the wastewater, external carbon source is needed.  (  )

  3. 答案:对
  4. Biological nitrogen and phosphorus removal must include both facultative/anaerobic and aerobic processes.  (  )

  5. 答案:对
  6. For normal biofilm process operation, the operating flux lies in the high-load region. (  )

  7. 答案:对
  8. Nitrifies are obligate aerobes, and they use O2 for respiration and as a direct reactant for the initial monooxygenation of NH4+ to NH2OH (hypdroxylamine).  (  )

  9. 答案:对
  10. Altering the SRT can lead to changes in sludge settling characteristics. The decrease in SRT always leads to poorer suspended-solids capture.(   )

  11. 答案:错
  12. Three distinct causes of sludge bulking: low dissolved oxygen, short SRT, and input reduced sulfur.(    )

  13. 答案:错
  14. All microbial reactions are assumed to occur in the biofilm and suspended flocs when we want to apply the steady state biofilm model in In the completely mixed biofilm reactor (CMBR). (     )

  15. 答案:错
  16. Denitrification can only be carried out in anaerobic condition. (   )

  17. 答案:错
  18. The workable flux for biofilm process is controlled by substrate concentration. (   )

  19. 答案:错
  20. The organic acid concentration is a key indicator of anaerobic system performance. (    )

  21. 答案:对
  22. The removal of BODL or waste stabilization totally depends on methane formation. (    )
  23. Biomass itself can be used as electron donor in denitrification.   (   )
  24. What are the advantages of anaerobic ammonium oxidation (ANAMMOX) compared to traditional nitrogen removal process(      ).
  25. The trickling filters have the following characteristics currently, including (     ).
  26. Under anaerobic conditions, which of the following can act as electron acceptor(      ).
  27. When using the pseudo-analytical procedure for a steady-state biofilm, f can be computed to determine if the biofilm is deep or shallow. Which of the following statement is correct (    ).
  28. Which of the following statements is correct about the characteristics of two-stage anaerobic treatment: (     ).
  29. The following equation is an overall, balanced reaction for the complete oxidation of NH4+ to NO3--N by nitrifies having θx=15d and fs =0.067, NH4+ + 1.815O2 + 0.1304CO2 = 0.0261C5H7O2N + 0.973NO3- + 0.921H2O + 1.973H+. It represents a typical situation for both nitrifies types together. This stoichiometric equation illustrates which of the features of nitrification(      ).
  30. Which of the following statements about nitrification is true ?(    )
  31. The half-saturation coefficient K for dissolved oxygen is generally less than 1 mg/L, therefore, dissolved oxygen should be kept at less what value to keep oxygen non-limiting? (    )
  32. Which of the followings shows the growth-based normalization of the reaction? (     )
  33. Which of the following statements is correct? (    )
  34. Which of the following organisms owns the highest true yield in their typical operating conditions? (     )
  35. Which of the following parameters is the most economic importance in trickling filters and biological tower design (    ).
  36. Which of the following is the unique operating parameter in rotating biological contactors (RBC)? (       )
  37. Which of the following statements is false about the characteristics of the idealized biofilm: (     ).
  38. The rate at which active biomass is converted to inert biomass is the difference between the overall decay rate and the true respiration decay rate. (    )
  39. It is ionized ammonium ion, not the ammonia, more often causes inhibition. (    )
  40. The clarifier used in high-rate system (trickling filters and biological tower) is to recycle the biomass. (  )
  41. The close juxtaposition of cells in a biofim is important for the exchange. (     )
  42. Nitrogen gas and CO2 are not included in the ASM1. (    )
  43. In the completely mixed biofilm reactor (CMBR),active biomass in the reactor and the effluent is at concentration Xa and comes solely from detachment from the biofilm. (     )
  44. Safety factors typically range from around five to hundreds in practice. (   )
  45. Whether the biofilm carriers are used, the total mass of active bacteria was not increased owing to the same substrate being treated. (  )
  46. Kinetics define how fast the reactions occur. (     )
  47. A large S*min indicates that biofilm accumulation strongly limits substrate utilization. (    )
  48. Very high concentrations of the electron donor or too low concentrations of DO concentration can lead to accumulation of the denitrification intermediates: NO, NO2, and N2O.  (   )
  49. The growth of new biomass per unit area per hour (YJT) is just balanced by the losses per unit area b’XfLf.(     ).
  50. A balanced reaction must have the same amount of mass in mole. (     )
  51. A special case of shallow is called fully penetrated when the substrate concentration has negligible gradient. (     )
  52. The function of the selector is to change or select the ecology of the activated sludge system towards organisms with good settling characteristics.(    )
  53. Hydrogen gas (H2) is an excellent electron donor for autotrophic denitrification. Its advantages include (     ) .
  54. Nitrifies are sensitive to inhibition from a range of organic and inorganic compounds, including (        ).
  55. The performance of an anaerobic sludge digester can measured by: (     ).
  56. A digester must accomplish two goals: (     ).
  57. The way of digester mixing: (        ).
  58. What are the two main stages in biological phosphorus removal ? (      )
  59. Which can be exploited to remove phosphorus as part of a microbiological treatment process?(     )
  60. Which of the following can be used as indicators to indicate the system has a long SRT. (      )
  61. The change in rate of chemical reaction with temperature is generally expressed as: (     ).
  62. The main end products after anaerobic treatment are (        ).
  63. Which of the following measures could prevent massive detachment of biofilm (      ).
  64. The acid/base nature of the hydroxy complexes means that the iron or aluminum speciation is pH dependent. At lower pH , the dominant species are (     ).
  65. The volatile suspended solids concentration follows the trend of (     ) .
  66. If the fixed parameters are: Df = 2 cm2/d, Xf = 40 mg/cm3, qmax= 10 mg/mg d, K= 0.001 mg/cm3, Ss= 0.01 mg/cm3, please compute the values of J.  (    )
  67. The fundamental “law” of the steady-state biofilm having the following properties except. (     )
  68. Which of the following has a relatively short detention time (     ).
  69. Assuming that all reactants and products are unit activity, except pH = 7. Which of the following electron donors and electron acceptors pairs do not represent the energy reactions for bacterial growth. (      )
  70. Which of the following is not the reason why researchers would like to use a model? (     )
  71. Which of the followings is considered in ASM1? (      )
  72. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (    )
  73. Overall Reactions R=(   ).
  74. When phosphorus is removed as part of biological treatment, metal salts can be added to the influent wastewater, directly to the aeration basin, or to the mixed liquor before it goes to the settler. ( )
  75. One possible drawback of the UCT process is that the sludge recycle returns NO3- to the anaerobic tank. ( )
  76. The overall reaction from NO3- to N2 reduce the N by 5 electron equivalents per N. ( )
  77. Almost all bio-film system work well for de-nitrification, as long as oxygen transfer can be kept to a minimum and plugging does not occur. ( )
  78. Keeping the organic loading below 2 to 6 kg BODL/(1,000 m2d) makes it possible to maintain a sufficient bulk-liquid DO. ( )
  79. About 15 to 20 percent of the organic matter is converted into biological solids in anaerobic treatment.( )
  80. The process of anaerobic treatment can be broken into which of the following steps: ( ).
  81. An absolute minimum value of θx to allow stable methanogenesis for a CSTR is: ( ).
  82. Which of the following statements is false about the characteristics of baffled reactor: ( ).
  83. The successful start-up and operation of an anaerobic system requires: ( ).
  84. The primary design criterion of CSTR contains: ( ).
  85. The contents of the digester can be heated through: ( ).
  86. Possible methods to control toxicity in anaerobic treatments: ( ).
  87. Estimating the methane production of anaerobic treatment process for wastewater containing 1.0 M glucose: ( ).
  88. The routine measurement of volatile acid concentration is of great-importance in the operation and control of anaerobic system.( )
  89. Advantages of anaerobic treatment include ( ) .
  90. What is the purpose of the effluent recycle line in two-phase system of fluidized-bed? ( )
  91. The microbial population in biofilm and activated sludge are different in species owing to the differences in the microorganism accumulated formation, although there are same electron donors and acceptors. ( )
  92. The medium will not move extensively when it is uniform in fluidized-bed reactor. ( )
  93. The changing of influent (Q) is usually controlled to chang the surface loading of trickling filters and biological tower. ( )
  94. In biological contactors (RBC), the percent submergence is too high and might lead to ( ).
  95. For a conventional design for the activated sludge treatment of domestic sewage, the F/M ratio suggested is 0.25 to 0.5 kg BOD5 per day per kg MLSS.( )
  96. In most situations, the electron donor, or the BOD, is rate limiting for microorganism reproduction and growth.( )
  97. Which one of the following is the most popular reactor configurations being used in wastewater treatment these days ( ).
  98. The conventional activated sludge system could remove BOD5 and suspended solids (SS) by ( ) percent or more for municipal sewage treatment.
  99. Secondary consumers in the activated sludge system include: ( ).
  100. Nitrite is included in ASM1. ( )
  101. Which of the following should be balanced in a model? ( )
  102. Hydrolysis is usually simulated via first order kinetic. ( )
  103. Anabolism is related to the rate of substrate uptake by a yield. ( )
  104. Both anoxic and aerobic growth of heterotrophs are considered in ASM1. ( )
  105. K* compares external mass transport to the maximum utilization rate. K* less than 1 means that the substrate utilization is controlled by external mass transport. ( )
  106. The idealized biofilm having the following properties except ( ).
  107. S*min represents the growth potential in the steady-state-biofilm model, and S*min much less than 1.0 indicates the net positive growth is much greater than the loss. (   )
  108. The result of mass-transport resistance is that the substrate concentrations at any position in the biofilm usually are lower than in the bulk liquid. ( )
  109. The following description of the fundamental “law” of the steady-state biofilm is correct. ( )
  110. The model of a steady-state biofilm requires simultaneous solution of ( ).
  111. The fundamental understanding of a steady-state biofilm is that the biomass per unit surface area (XfLf) is constant in time, and the biomass at any one location is at steady state.
  112. For deep biofilm, it has the maximum flux into the biofilm. ( )
  113. UAP is biodegraded considerably faster than is BAP. ( )
  114. Solids retention time or sludge age is the reciprocal of the net specific growth rate. ( )
  115. The true yield cannot be estimated from experiments. ( )
  116. Which of the following is the right definition of ‘safety factor’ in engineering? ( )
  117. The decay of active biomass is a first-order function, including the fraction for true respiration and for inert. ( )
  118. fs0+fe0=( ).
  119. The net yield Yn will sometimes equals to true yield Y. ( )
  120. The basic reactions involved in bacterial growth, including( ).
  121. In microbial metabolism, NO3- and SO42- can be used as electron acceptors in ( ).
  122. The amount of donor used for energy production for cells synthesis related to both energy required for cell synthesis and energy released from donor oxidation. ( )
  123. Which of the following saying are correct(   ).
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